CompTIA CAS-005 Valid Exam Forum & CAS-005 New Question

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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This section of the exam measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that cover the implementation of governance components based on organizational security requirements, including developing policies, procedures, and standards. Candidates will learn about managing security programs, including awareness training on phishing and social engineering.
Topic 2
  • Security Architecture: This domain focuses on analyzing requirements to design resilient systems, including the configuration of firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
Topic 3
  • Security Engineering: This section measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that involve troubleshooting common issues related to identity and access management (IAM) components within an enterprise environment. Candidates will analyze requirements to enhance endpoint and server security while implementing hardware security technologies. This domain also emphasizes the importance of advanced cryptographic concepts in securing systems.
Topic 4
  • Security Operations: This domain is designed for CompTIA security architects and covers analyzing data to support monitoring and response activities, as well as assessing vulnerabilities and recommending solutions to reduce attack surfaces. Candidates will apply threat-hunting techniques and utilize threat intelligence concepts to enhance operational security.

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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q268-Q273):

NEW QUESTION # 268
An analyst is working to address a potential compromise of a corporate endpoint and discovers the attacker accessed a user's credentials. However, it is unclear if the system baseline was modified to achieve persistence. Which of the following would most likely support forensic activities in this scenario?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Bit-level disk duplication is the best option in this scenario for supporting forensic activities. It involves creating an exact, sector-by-sector copy of the hard drive, which allows forensic analysts to examine the entire disk, including deleted files, hidden data, or modifications that may have been made by the attacker to achieve persistence. This approach provides the most comprehensive data for investigating the potential compromise and determining if the system baseline was modified.


NEW QUESTION # 269
During a security assessment using an CDR solution, a security engineer generates the following report about the assets in me system:

After five days, the EDR console reports an infection on the host 0WIN23 by a remote access Trojan Which of the following is the most probable cause of the infection?

Answer: B

Explanation:
OWIN23 is running Windows 7, which is a legacy operating system. Many EDR solutions no longer provide full support for outdated operating systems like Windows 7, which has reached its end of life and is no longer receiving security updates from Microsoft. This makes such systems more vulnerable to infections and attacks, including remote access Trojans (RATs).
A). OWIN23 uses a legacy version of Windows that is not supported by the EDR: This is the most probable cause because the lack of support means that the EDR solution may not fully protect or monitor this system, making it an easy target for infections.
B). LN002 was not supported by the EDR solution and propagates the RAT: While LN002 is unmanaged, it is less likely to propagate the RAT to OWIN23 directly without an established vector.
C). The EDR has an unknown vulnerability that was exploited by the attacker: This is possible but less likely than the lack of support for an outdated OS.
D). OWIN29 spreads the malware through other hosts in the network: While this could happen, the status indicates OWIN29 is in a bypass mode, which might limit its interactions but does not directly explain the infection on OWIN23.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls forInformation Systems and Organizations" Microsoft's Windows 7 End of Support documentation


NEW QUESTION # 270
After an incident response exercise, a security administrator reviews the following table:

Which of the following should the administrator do to beat support rapid incident response in the future?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Enabling dashboards for service status monitoring is the best action to support rapid incident response. The table shows various services with different risk, criticality, and alert severity ratings. To ensure timely and effective incident response, real-time visibility into the status of these services is crucial.
Why Dashboards for Service Status Monitoring?
Real-time Visibility: Dashboards provide an at-a-glance view of the current status of all critical services, enabling rapid detection of issues.
Centralized Monitoring: A single platform to monitor the status of multiple services helps streamline incident response efforts.
Proactive Alerting: Dashboards can be configured to show alerts and anomalies immediately, ensuring that incidents are addressed as soon as they arise.
Improved Decision Making: Real-time data helps incident response teams make informed decisions quickly, reducing downtime and mitigating impact.
Other options, while useful, do not offer the same level of comprehensive, real-time visibility and proactive alerting:
A . Automate alerting to IT support for phone system outages: This addresses one service but does not provide a holistic view.
C . Send emails for failed log-in attempts on the public website: This is a specific alert for one type of issue and does not cover all services.
D . Configure automated isolation of human resources systems: This is a reactive measure for a specific service and does not provide real-time status monitoring.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
"Best Practices for Implementing Dashboards," Gartner Research


NEW QUESTION # 271
A security engineer discovers that some legacy systems are still in use or were not properly decommissioned. After further investigation, the engineer identifies that an unknown and potentially malicious server is also sending emails on behalf of the company. The security engineer extracts the following data for review:

Which of the following actions should the security engineer take next? (Select two).

Answer: D,F

Explanation:
The presence of an unauthorized server (29mail.mycrosoft.info) sending emails on behalf of the company indicates a potential spoofing or phishing attempt. To mitigate this:
Remove the unnecessary servers from the SPF record (Option C): The Sender Policy Framework (SPF) specifies which mail servers are authorized to send emails on behalf of a domain. Removing unauthorized or unnecessary servers from the SPF record helps prevent spoofed emails from passing SPF checks.
Change the SPF record to enforce the hard fail parameter (Option D): Setting the SPF policy to a hard fail (-all) ensures that emails from unauthorized servers are rejected, enhancing email security.
Implementing these changes strengthens the domain's email authentication mechanisms, reducing the risk of successful phishing or spoofing attacks.


NEW QUESTION # 272
A systems engineer is configuring a system baseline for servers that will provide email services. As part of the architecture design, the engineer needs to improve performance of the systems by using an access vector cache, facilitating mandatory access control and protecting against:
* Unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs
* Bypassing application security mechanisms
* Privilege escalation
* interference with other processes
Which of the following is the most appropriate for the engineer to deploy?

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most appropriate solution for the systems engineer to deploy is SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux).
Here's why:
Mandatory Access Control (MAC): SELinux enforces MAC policies, ensuring that only authorized users and processes can access specific resources. This helps in preventing unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs.
Access Vector Cache: SELinux utilizes an access vector cache (AVC) to improve performance. The AVC caches access decisions, reducing the need for repetitive policy lookups and thus improving system efficiency.
Security Mechanisms: SELinux provides a robust framework to enforce security policies and prevent bypassing of application security mechanisms. It controls access based on defined policies, ensuring that security measures are consistently applied.
Privilege Escalation and Process Interference: SELinux limits the ability of processes to escalate privileges and interfere with each other by enforcing strict access controls. This containment helps in isolating processes and minimizing the risk of privilege escalation attacks.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NSA's Guide to the Secure Configuration of Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 (SELinux) NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations


NEW QUESTION # 273
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